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Physics 22 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

space translation invariance in quantum mechanics if \psi is the wave function of a 1D system is it equivalent to say that translation invariance (symmetry under translations) is fulfilled if: a) \psi'(x+D)=\psi(x) and b) \psi and \psi' fulfil the same Schroedinger equation? (Which means that H=H') I use ' to denote the quantities related to the translated system.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

That seems right, unless there's a trick I'm missing

OpenStudy (anonymous):

How could I show explicitly the equivalence between a) and b)?

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