In your opinion, what was the point at which U.S. actions were no longer neutral?
@Panhead101
The USA practicing a strictly Isolationist policy is entirely neutral. Some cite the fact Ford and other companies were doing business with Germany, some cite 'Lend-Lease' itself as involvement - thus no longer neutral. However is being [forgive the lack of better description] an arms dealer actively participating - I'd suggest not. Even FDR compared Lend-Lease to just lending your neighbor a garden hose because the neighbots house is on fire... you'd doing so at no risk to yourself, you're not really involving yourself in putting out the fire... you're just being a good neighbor, even better if you can rent out the garden hose. I don't think Lend-Lease bars the USA from being neutral. Militarily, escorting those ships carrying Lend-Lease across the Atlantic with USN warships suggesting if they get fired on, you'll fire back crosses the neutrality line however as that is active involvement. It's defensive up to the point you take up arms and enter an active war zone; whether you fire or not is a moot point... you said you're going to and you have every intention of doing so. The RN and RCN was more than capable of escorting those vessels, they've been doing it since 1939. Naval involvement is not the act of a neutral country.
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