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Mathematics 9 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

whether f(h(x)) and h(f(x)) will always result in the same number

OpenStudy (cggurumanjunath):

NO

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if they are inverses, then yes.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

why no? @humingbird

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sorry, i was wrong. if they are inverse they will always result in x. if they are not they will be equal but not x.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks for the medal :)

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