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I NEED HELP WITH A PROOF! PLEASE HELP ME! SEE THE PICTURE ATTACHED!
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for reason 2), it looks like the division property of equality is being used twice
since they divide both sides by BE and then divide both sides by BD to set up that proportion
ok, do you know 3 and 4?
it seems like step 3 is not necessary since you can use the SSS similarity theorem converse to go from 2 to 4 (and skip 3 entirely)
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also, there isn't enough info to prove 3 anyway
OK, I can't understand completely. For reason 3 I should answer "not enough info", and for reason 4 I should answer what?
well that's my argument anyway, I could be missing something though
ok, thanks for your help.
you're welcome
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