Derivative and inverse function help!? Use the derivative to show why f(x)=definite integral 1/(4+e^t)dt, [0, ln x], with x>0 has an inverse function
if f'(x) > 0 for all x in (0,inf) then f is strictly increasing, thus, it has an inverse. or if f'(x) < 0 for all x in (0,inf) then f is strictly decreasing, thus, it also has an inverse
so after i find the derivative of this function, i look at the... range?
what did you get for derivative
i just realized i didn't put that the equation is 1/SQRT(4+e^t) but my derivative would be \[-\frac{ e^t }{ 2(e^t+4)^{3/2} }\]
f'(x) = 1/[x sqrt(4 + x) ]
again, f'(x) > 0 for all x in (0,inf) so f has an inverse
f wasn't just 1/sqrt(4 + e^t) it was \[f(x) = \int\limits\limits_{0}^{\ln(x)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{4+e^t}} dt\]
okay, wow, way to go wolfram derivatives... so because no matter what positive number is used for x, f'(x) is positive. would graphing help see the inverse?
well, if you can find a way to graph f, then sure. But graphing is not always reliable
here is the graph of f https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=+-tanh%5E%28-1%29%28sqrt%28e%5E%28ln%28x%29%29%2B4%29%2F2%29+%2C+x+from+0+to+10
https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=1%2F%28x%28sqrt%284%2Bx%29%29%29%2C+x+from+0+to+10 does this work as the graph of f'(x)?
that one is f'(x), not f(x)
but you can certainly use the graph of f'(x). As you can see, f'(x) is always positive on (0,inf)
yeah, i graphed f ' (x). but do i need to figure out the inverse function? or is that not necessary?
no, the question only asks for the proof that f(x) has an inverse.
right, okay. so it has an inverse because the function is continuously increasing for all the values of x>0 ?
yes
though I wouldn't say continuously increasing but rather strictly increasing.
okay, strictly it is. Thank you so much!
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