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Which of the following is false?
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a. f^-1(x) is a one-to-one function? b. f^-1(x) has a domain of d < x < c c. a = f^-1(f(a)) d. d/dx(f^-1(x))_>0 e. f^-1(c) = a
Assume that f −1(x) is defined by restricting f(x) to the domain a < x < b. Which of the following statements is false?
Opps, I meant f^-1(x).
i would go with A the inverse of the function could not be a one-to-one function
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