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Mathematics 30 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Suppose F, G, and H are nonempty families of sets and for every A∈F and every B∈G, AUB ∈ H. Prove ∩H ⊆ (∩F) U (∩G)

OpenStudy (reemii):

\(\cap F\) is a set of \(F\). \(\cap G\) is a set of \(G\). \((\cap F) \cup (\cap G)\) is a set \(K\) of \(H\) by hypothesis. Therefore ...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what do you mean by ∩F is a set of F?

OpenStudy (reemii):

It is an element of F (and it also is a set).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

No, that isn't true. consider F = { {1,2} , {1,3} } ∩F = {1}, but {1} isn't an element of F

OpenStudy (reemii):

ok.

OpenStudy (reemii):

did you try anything?

OpenStudy (reemii):

@sourwing

OpenStudy (reemii):

Consider \(E = \{A\cup B | A\in F, B\in G\}\). Obviously \(E\subseteq H\), therefore \(\cap H\subseteq\cap E\). We would like to show that \(\cap E\) is a subset of \((\cap F) \cup (\cap G)\). (doesn't matter if it's equal). Suppose there exists \(x\in \cap E\) but \(x\not\in \cap F \cup \cap G\). Then x is neither in \(\cap F\) nor in \(\cap G\). Then there exists A and B such that \(x\not\in A\) and \(x\not\in B\). But we also have \(A\cup B \in E\) by definition. Therefore \(\cap E \subseteq A\cup B \) beause \(A\cup B\) is one set involved in \(\cap E\). This is a contradiction, because \(x\in \cap E\subseteq A\cup B \not\ni x\) is impossible. -- Conclusion. \(\cap H\subseteq \cap E \subseteq \cap F \cup \cap G\).

OpenStudy (reemii):

idk if it's a "real question" or an exercise for us.. if the demo's flawed, don't hesitate to tell me.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sounds good to me. thank you

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