Which of the following best describes why the Fairness Doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television?

The FCC had already repealed the Fairness Doctrine in the 1960s due to several court cases brought about in light of the coverage of the Vietnam War.

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

Question

Which of the following best describes why the Fairness Doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television?

The FCC had already repealed the Fairness Doctrine in the 1960s due to several court cases brought about in light of the coverage of the Vietnam War.

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

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