Does anybody know a validated way to prove 1+1=0? I mean not using 0/0 etc.
WILL FAN AND MEDAL thanks!
CO
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OpenStudy (ikram002p):
u mean 1-1 =0 ?
OpenStudy (paki):
1+1=0 ikram
OpenStudy (ikram002p):
mmm in bolean function ?
OpenStudy (crashonce):
ya 1+1=0
OpenStudy (ikram002p):
well lets see in integer system ?
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OpenStudy (crashonce):
idk i just wanna find a way of doing it as long as its legit
OpenStudy (ikram002p):
ok :) here is away to think of it , in Z group with adding operation
to be a group it need to have
1_identity which is zero
2_and for any \(a \in Z \) there is "-a " such that a + -(a) = 0
ok so far ?
OpenStudy (ikram002p):
so we need to check if 1+1=0
from the above we know that 1+ (-1 )=0 right ?
OpenStudy (crashonce):
ya
OpenStudy (crashonce):
@ikram002p could you just type the method cos i need to put another question up
thanks
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OpenStudy (ikram002p):
thats it lol xD
the Additive inverse is unique
we have from hypothesis that 1-1 =0
and ur Qn is 1+1 =0
so 1 = -1 which is a contradiction :D