Orthogonality of two vectors of infinite dimension.
How would you show that a vector containing successive alternating even powers of (pi/2) is orthogonal to a vector containing only the inverse of even factorials?
\[\Large <(\frac{\pi}{2})^0, -(\frac{\pi}{2})^2,(\frac{\pi}{2})^4,...>\] and \[\Large <\frac{1}{0!}, \frac{1}{2!},\frac{1}{4!},...>\] show that these are orthogonal
mmm any trick with dot product ? and we might have some series ?
You are on the right path! I just came up with this for fun, and thought it was an interesting thing to consider and wanted to see how people would approach this problem haha. =D
lol ok ill try but u shouldnt give me medal untill i get it :P
Ok good luck. I'll give a hint, if I replaced pi/2 with n, there are infinitely many values you can pick for which the two vectors are orthogonal, and there is a formula for all possible n's that make them orthogonal. That might either make it more confusing or help, I don't know haha.
so we wanna prove hehe xD \(\Huge \sum_{\large n=1}^{ \large \infty} \left ( (-1)^n (\frac{ \pi }{2})^{\large 2n}.\frac{1}{(2n)!} \right )=0\)
Haha pretty much. Except the index starts at n=0 heh. =P
hehe its ok lol small typo \(\Huge \sum_{\large n=0}^{ \large \infty} \left ( (-1)^n (\frac{ \pi }{2})^{\large 2n}.\frac{1}{(2n)!} \right )=0 \)
idk why i wanna use some fourier for some function :o
You're on the right path kind of, but you might be overcomplicating it a little hehe.
haha well , its couse i cant think in other place other than my home xD
I know what you mean! I guess you'll just have to have this bothering you the rest of the day until you figure it out! =P
Would it suffice to show that the partial sums approach 0? You essentially are proving a limit, so you could try satisfying Cauchy conditions for convergence.
hint: Taylor Series.
hehe finally lol cos pi/2 :P
wew !
XD Nice!
:P hehe
Fun, I wonder what interesting or useful things you can get out of considering other Taylor series as infinite dot products I wonder? =P
wonder as you want :P
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