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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (s3a):

INFINITE SUM of sin(4n + 1)/4n^2 from n = 1 to infinity As you can see here, that sum converges.: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sum+from+n%3D1+to+inf+of+sin(4n+%2B+1)+%2F+(4n%5E2) I'm trying to show that it converges, but I can't think of which test to use. If someone could at least tell me which test to use (without even having to tell me how to use it), I would very much appreciate it!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Comparison test should work. Hint: \(\sin x\) is bounded.

OpenStudy (s3a):

@SithsAndGiggles, thanks for your answer, but I preferred your first answer before you edited it. That instantaneously made me understand that the series converges, but I still cannot see how to link it to the direct comparison test ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_comparison_test ), because it uses only one summation to compare. In other words, I see that saying it's greater than a convergent series implies that the series is not diverging to negative infinity and that saying it's smaller than a convergent series implies that the series is not diverging to positive infinity, both of which together imply that it's converging, but the Wikipedia link I gave only compares to the series for which convergence has not been established with one series for which it has been established (instead of two like we did).

OpenStudy (s3a):

Could you please elaborate on this situation?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Sure. I edited my first response after rereading your question; you only wanted the test, but I didn't think it was enough of a hint. The sine function is bounded: \[-1\le\sin x\le1\] The argument of the sine doesn't change the amplitude of the sine wave, which means \(\sin(\text{anything})\) will always be bounded between \(-1\) and \(1\), whereas \(k\sin(\text{anything})\) will be bounded between \(-k\) and \(k\). Hence \[-1\le\sin(4n+1)\le1\] Divide everything by \(n^2\) and you have \[\frac{-1}{n^2}\le\frac{\sin(4n+1)}{n^2}\le\frac{1}{n^2}\] which directly implies that \[\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{-1}{n^2}\le\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\sin(4n+1)}{n^2}\le\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\] This is enough to show the given series converges. (I'm neglecting the 4 in the denominator because it doesn't change the conclusion.) If you're not convinced, you can approach this a slightly different way by accepting that the numerator is bounded above by some constant \(c\) (which is actually 1). Then comparing to the series \(\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\) will show you that the given series converges because \[\sin(4n+1)\le c~~\iff~~\frac{\sin(4n+1)}{n^2}\le\frac{c}{n^2}\] In other words, this "alternative" method ignores the lower bound of the numerator, since the upper bound is all that matters.

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