The governments of both ancient Greece and Rome allowed all men to vote regardless of class, property, or wealth.

True or False?

Question

The governments of both ancient Greece and Rome allowed all men to vote regardless of class, property, or wealth. 

True or False?

anonymous · Answer

Flase

anonymous · Answer

In rome people who were in poverty had no right to vote

conqueror · Answer

@ConnorRocheo http://openstudy.com/code-of-conduct Give Help, Not Answers - I will encourage and guide those needing help, and not just give them an answer Don't devalue the question/answer process! Don't provide someone with just the answer - explain the process, and help guide them through understanding the problem.

anonymous · Answer

i gave an answer with a explanation isisnt that good enough?

conqueror · Answer

...and help guide them through understanding the problem.

conqueror · Answer

You're not supposed to answer, the askers are. (after you help them)

anonymous · Answer

alright sorry i started using this two hours ago forgive me

conqueror · Answer

Mhm, don't forget you checked the box agreeing to the code of conduct when you joined.

anonymous · Answer

no one actually reads those things haha

paki · Answer

@Conqueror  welcome back.... and be cool :)

paki · Answer

@ConnorRocheo  please have a nice look at the code of conduct of open study....

anonymous · Answer

k bye

anonymous · Answer

I kinda figured it out right after I posted it but thank you :)

anonymous · Answer

haha your welcome! if you need help with any other problems mention me :)

conqueror · Answer

@Anilaojert 

If you see people give you direct answers, make sure they don't do it again.