Let f(x)=tan^(-1)x. Then the domain of f(x) is [0,pi] and the range is all real numbers.

True or False?

Question

Let f(x)=tan^(-1)x. Then the domain of f(x) is [0,pi] and the range is all real numbers.

True or False?

anonymous · Answer

it's false because there are negative values in the range of arctan(x)

anonymous · Answer

Do you understand?

anonymous · Answer

@MrClaymoar are you there?

anonymous · Answer

Oh, sorry, I just got back to my computer

anonymous · Answer

Hm, wouldn't negative numbers still fall into the range of "All Real" numbers? @TaylorS11

anonymous · Answer

yes, it goes from -pi/2 to pi,2 sorry

anonymous · Answer

Hm, I put the function into a "Domain and Range" calc, and it said the domain was all real numbers. So that would make this statement false?

anonymous · Answer

anonymous · Answer

Hmmm, that question is  *little* bit different, but may be I could use it to find my answer.

amistre64 · Answer

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