If a+ib=tanh(x+i π/4),prove that a^2+b^2=1
what is the shortest way....taking log on both sides? didn't help much...
first expand the right side to the definition of tanh
i would do it the difficult way :P
\(\Large \dfrac{e^y-e^{-y}}{e^y+e^{-y}}\) where y =x+i π/4 then ?
\(\Large e^y = e^{x+i\pi/4} = e^x e^{i\pi/4} = ...\)
well i would probably condense it to -i/cot(i*y)
oh and then ?
any formula for cot iy ?
so we have a + bi = -i/cot(i*y) multiply both sides by i ai - b = 1/cot(i*y) ai - b = tan(i*y) ai - b = tan(ix - pi/4)
what do you think you can do from there?
tan (a-b) formula ? but that will make the denominator have the complex term...
yeah, and there's an i on the left side of the equation as well. we can multiply things out to make it work (i think, i may have done it wrong but i think it'll work :P trust)
sure! lets try ai-b = (tan ix-1)/(1-tanix) = -1 whoa...is that correct ?
yes! (tan (ix)-1)/(1-tan(ix)) = -1
thanks!
no worries. you can prove it with the given info right?
ofcourse :)
the first step was important!
yeah, i hate working with tanh identities. much easier to just expand tanh because -i/cot(ix) is a very pretty way of putting tanh
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