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Mathematics 13 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

I am very close to answering this, I just want to be sure that I am on the right track. Explain whether the following statement is a valid definition: “A 150° angle is an obtuse angle.” Use the converse, biconditional, and at least one Euler diagram to support your answer. I know that it is not a valid definition. I already solved the converse of the statement, and most of the biconditional statement. I am just a little confused as to how to approach the problem with a Euler diagram. Any help is appreciated.

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