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A professor examines the distribution of his 71 students' midterm and final performance. mid term mean=35 sd=6.7, final mean=31 sd=5.9.The maximum no. of points was 50 on each test. the correlation between the midterm and final was 0.46. he doubles the final score. the correlation between the midterm and the final remain0.46?
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So it is now 61 out of 100?
I don't think it stays the same because the points on the graph are now different for one axis. Therefore, the correlation is likely to be less correlated (closer to 0).
Does that make any sense?
thank you
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