How/Why do King Duncan and Banquo not become corrupt by power in Macbeth?
both have good conscience. they believe that it's preferable to hold our baser instincts as possibilities of being rather than actual states of existence.
Is there any way I could prove this? I'm writing a persuasive essay.
you can prove it in the case of Banquo.
you can write that although both Macbeth and Banquo are told the prophecy, and both are equally susceptible to corruption by the prophecy. but only Macbeth acts it out without giving any regard to moral consequences; while Banquo doesn't even gives it a second thought as he is not ruled by his baser instincts, thereby being not corrupt.
Thank you this has really helped. Now I can finish the essay.
for duncan, you can write that since he is the king, he has the power to do anything and dispose of anyone as per his whim. but he remains a good king to his subject, acts out rationally and gives credit to Macbeth and Banquo when they earn it. given a choice, he refuses to misuse his powers, thereby being free from corruption. Good luck!
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