Question

True or False: A function can't equal its inverse. Explain why.

Answer 1

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function

Answer 2

@Directrix

Answer 3

http://www.mathsisfun.com/sets/function-inverse.html

Answer 4

Those two links should help you.

Answer 5

I guess True, because only certain values will only work

Answer 6

the inverse of y = x is x= y, but that is the same line

Answer 7

so False

Answer 8

yes its false

Answer 9

such functions which are equal to their inverse are called involutions.
f(f(x)) = x

Answer 10

such examples include
f(x) = 1/x
f(x) = a-x (for any constant a)