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True or False: A function can't equal its inverse. Explain why.
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@Directrix
Those two links should help you.
I guess True, because only certain values will only work
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the inverse of y = x is x= y, but that is the same line
so False
yes its false
such functions which are equal to their inverse are called involutions. f(f(x)) = x
such examples include f(x) = 1/x f(x) = a-x (for any constant a)
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