Question

@OVERCOOL
The question I need looking over.
Why did the loyalty oath required under Radical Reconstruction disfranchise more former Confederates?
A. Former Confederates would not swear loyalty to a government that did not include them.
B. Former Confederates could not swear that they had always been loyal to the United States.
C. Former Confederates would not swear loyalty to a government that did not support slavery.
D. Former Confederates could not meet residential requirements to vote since they were away from home during the war.
I put B. Is that correct?

Answer 1

The issue of loyalty emerged in the debates over the Wade–Davis Bill of 1864. The bill required voters to take the "ironclad oath", swearing they had never supported the Confederacy or been one of its soldiers. Pursuing a policy of "malice toward none" announced in his second inaugural address, Lincoln asked voters only to support the Union.[33] The Radicals lost support following Lincoln's veto of the Wade–Davis Bill but regained strength after Lincoln's assassination in April 1865.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reconstruction_Era

Answer 2

@WtfWhyAmIAGhost

Answer 3

I think you are correct.

Answer 4

Thank you. ^^

Answer 5

You're welcome.

Answer 6

Sorry I wanted to make sure your answer was correct.

Answer 7

On March 21, 1947, concerned with Soviet subversive penetration and infiltration into the United States government by American citizens who held oaths of allegiance to a foreign power during war time, President Harry S Truman instituted a Loyalty Program, requiring loyalty oaths and background investigations on persons deemed suspect of holding party membership in organizations that advocated violent and anti-democratic programs.

Answer 8

With that information It Seem that it is Correct.

Answer 9

Yes.