Why did Congress pass both the Missouri Compromise and the Compromise of 1850? A. to permit states to secede from the Union under certain conditions B. to provide a legal means for the return of runaway slaves from Canada C. to maintain a balance of power between northern and southern states D. to legalize slavery in all states and territories west of the Mississippi
@logan13
@chrissyC.
@TobleroneJesus
@TobleroneJesus
the answer is c
What this dude says ^
They were both concerned with the acquisition by America of vast new territories, and the debate over which of the forthcoming states would be slave and which would be free.. In the case of the land acquired from France by the Louisiana Purchase, they settled on the Southern border of Missouri as the divide. This parallel, as it extended westwards, would be the line, North of which slavery was illegal. This was the Missouri Compromise (1820), a simple arrangement that kept the peace for thirty years. After the Mexican war, the new state of California extended too far on either side of the Missouri line to fit the terms of the Missouri Compromise. So a new deal had to be worked out (Compromise of 1850), with California admitted to the union as free soil, subject to certain concessions to the South, including the Fugitive Slave Act. This roused furious reactions in the powerful Abolitionist lobby, and the new compromise did not last. So D. did happen but not in the 1850's so then the answer would be C.
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