Textbook says the integral of (sin cos^3) is -(cos^4)/4 . I'm using trig integrals technique which instead gives me (sin^2)/2 - (sin^4)/4. What gives?
\[\large \int \sin x \,\cos^3x \, dx\]
like that ?
Yes
what technique are you using ? could you elaborate
Sure, I turned cos^3 into cos cos^2. Then turned cos^2 into (1-sin^2). u-subbed sin and integrated to the above answer
Looks legit! so with your method, you get something like this ?\[\int\sin x~\cos x~(\cos^2x)\, dx =\int\sin x~\cos x~(1-\sin^2x)\, dx= \int u(1-u^2)\, du\]
exactly
\[ \int u(1-u^2)\, du=\frac{u^2}{2}-\frac{u^4}{4}+C = \frac{\sin^2x}{2}-\frac{\sin^4x}{4}+C\]
you want to match your answer wid textbook is it ?
btw, your answer is also correct
Yea, i plugged in some angles to see if maybe it would result in the same answer but no dice. They still don't match :(
they match upto a " constant "
let me ask you a quick question, what are the derivatives of below two functions ? 1) \(f(x)=\sin x\) 2) \(g(x) = \sin x+100000\)
both are cosx
so whats "the" antiderivative of \(\cos x\) ?
sinx
sorry, i'm not sure where this is leading lol
the question is actually tricky how do you know the antiderivative of \(\cos x\) is not \(\sin x+100000\) ?
Hmm.. well i guess it seems a little counter intuitive that the functions wouldn't be equal to each other given the same angle. So then both answers are correct?
Yes both answers are correct because they differ only by a constant.
It would be fun to actually try and prove above statement
Good ol' calculus. Thanks for your help :)
show that "your answer" = "textbook answer" + C
Lol it'll be fun when I don't have a final breathing down my neck.
It is important to acknowledge that the antiderivative is not a single function, but a family of functions, all differing by a constant.
\[\int \cos x\, dx = \sin x + C\] where \(C\) is an arbitrary constant
Agreed - i like to know the why's. Not just the how's. Thanks for your time ! :)
@rational they are...cos^4 = (1-sin^2)^2 =1-2sin^2+sin^4 so -cos^4/4=1/4+sin^2/2-sin^4/4
Ahh nice xD so not so hard to show they differ by a constant : 1/4
This example illustrates a pitfall of following the textbook's solution.
well there seems to be a little problem in the interpretation of the question i'd do this \[u = \cos(x) ~~~~\frac{du}{dx} = -\sin(x) ~~~~so ~~~~du = -\sin(x)dx\] so the problem, rewritten is \[\int\limits \cos^3(x) \sin(x)~dx\] when when using substitution becomes \[\int\limits u^3 \times -du!!~~~or ~~~-\int\limits u^3 du\] which becomes \[-\frac{u^4}{4} + c\] make the substitution for u and you get \[-\frac{\cos^4(x)}{4}\] this is a high school maths question and solution
hope it makes sense... it required substitution, but just a simple substitution.
oops forgot to add the constant C to the solution
@campbell_st that would be the most direct substituion
@campbell_st it makes perfect sense! I'm beating myself up for not even considering that route...but this was overall a good exercise to see it worked out from different angles.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!