Functions
\(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} & \normalsize \text{if}\ f(x)=\dfrac{1}{g(x)}\ \text{then which of the following is correct} \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ &a.)\ f(f(g(f(x)))) =f(g(g(f(f(x)))))\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ &b.)\ f(g(g(f(f(x)))))=f(f(g(g(g(x))))) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ &c.)\ g(g(f(f(g(f(x))))))=f(f(g(g(f(g(x)))))) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ &d.)\ f(g(g(g(f(x)))))= g(g(f(f(f(x)))))\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\)
lol really
my mind blasted out while typing the options.
i want to say C
yea option c.) is right
how did u figured so fast.
okay lets see why the same number of gs and fs makes it equal
lol just thought itd be nice if the only one with same gs and fs on both sides was the right one
same number* of
lol , funny judgment instinct
solomon's reaction after seeing this question. |dw:1435247455337:dw|
can we work out somethign simpler
f(g(x)) = g(f(x))?
is that true or what is the relationship between these 2
You can pick for simplicity F(x)=x, g(x)=1/x.. I know it's not professional solution but th question who started being silly :P
i was thinking we could assume some values for this function
ya that one 1/x ,x.
oaky to clean it up a little the x is making it very annoying
|dw:1435248000948:dw|
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