Am I right? http://prntscr.com/9fndiw
no
When you expand something like \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle (b-c)a }\) you get \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle b\cdot a-c\cdot a }\) but, NOT the other way around, \(\color{#ff0000 }{ \displaystyle c\cdot a-b\cdot a }\)
so B.?
(sorry im a little confused)
I showed you the rule, \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle (b-c)a =(b\cdot a) - (c\cdot a)}\) -------------------------- Think about it, based on the example below; \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle (7-5)3=(7\cdot 3)-(5\cdot 3) }\) I got the above result when applying the "rule". Now, I will simplify both sides and calculate. \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle (7-5)3=(7\cdot 3)-(5\cdot 3) }\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle 2\cdot3=(21)-(15) }\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle 6=6 }\)
Wouldn't you agree then this rule works for all a, b, & c.
This is how I solved for it: (4−3m)(8) =(4+−3m)(8) =(4)(8)+(−3m)(8) =32−24m
\(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle (\color{red}{4}-\color{blue}{3m})8 =(\color{red}{4}\cdot 8) - (\color{blue}{3m}\cdot 8)}\) that is how the rule is applied in THIS case.
I think I see what it means now so basically the rule has to go along with it,
thanks to both of you lol I'm not good at math
I am not either ... :)
yw
I am not to good at it aswell heh.
:3
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