Doubt, please help
Sure, post it.
its a physics based math problem
Calculus
This red portion, I didn't understand.
=1/2????
He said about some calculus trick!
@IrishBoy123 Math based Physics problem
so i think the first diagram is of sin(kx-wt) so this has name the sinusoid and the second is the diagram of sin^2(kx-wt) - in this case the waves are denser by 1/2 because the midle part of first in case of second diagram has eliminated yes? this is my opinion
hmmm, @jhonyy9 yes you are right
and then?
i have an easy to follow derivation of this, if you allow me to share. in one second, the wave travels length \(v\) by definition. all particles in that length \(v\) perform SHM with amplitude \(A\) and angular frequency \(\omega\). now the mass of all these particles is \(\text{mass per unit length}\times \text{length} = \mu v\) now the energy of a particle in SHM is \(\frac{1}2m \omega^2 A^2 = \frac{1}2\mu v \omega^2 A^2 \)and we're done!
yes @ParthKohli but she or he have said that dont understand the red part
Its he :D
that's probably the "average" value of the whole function over one wavelength
yes http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+sin%5E2+x+from+0+to++2pi
yes @ParthKohli is absolutely right. But I needed the solution of the mathematical part
I mean the red part, why 1/2 using calculus
or Lewin here from about 40 mins onwards: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Tul2JfUEnpA he's prob as good as it gets.
\[\frac{1}{\lambda} \int_{0}^{\lambda} \sin^2 \left(\frac{2\pi}{\lambda} x\right)dx = \frac{1}2 \]
Ok I appreciate the help @IrishBoy123 and @ParthKohli . I will look into the video and see and post it back here.... Thanks a lot
@ParthKohli , why did you do the last step?
@ganeshie8
@Astrophysics
@AravindG
@Abmon98
if we use calculus, then its x/2+some cosine function
what happened to the x and also cosine function?
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