Question

Ethan says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. Is this true every time? Give an example.

Answer 1

lets take an example here lets say 1 < 2 < 3 multiply each term by -1 now you have -1<-2<-3 but now that doesnt seem right how should it be written now?

Answer 2

do you see what I am saying?/