Prove that there is no positive rational number a such that a^2 = 3. You may assume that a positive integer can be written in one of the forms 3k, 3k + 1, 3k + 2 for some integer k. Prove that if the square of a positive integer is divisible by 3, then so is the integer. Then use a similar proof as for sqrt(2).
take square root on both side a = square root 3 a = 1.73 which is not a rational number
Hmm I remember the sqrt2 proof :) That's a fun one.
This is from Lang's Basic Mathematics by the way. So I'm looking for something around that level. Nothing too over my head.
This proof relies on fermats infinite descent
\(a^2 = 3\) Step1 : By way of contradiction, suppose that \(a\) is rational and is equal to \(\dfrac{x}{y}\) for some two "positive" integers. \(\left(\dfrac{x}{y}\right)^2 = 3\)
Okay good! This looks similar to the stuff presented in the book.
Step2 : \(x^2=3y^2\) This means \(x^2\) is divisible by \(3\). It follows that \(x\) is also divisible by \(3\). Say, \(x = 3x_1\). Notice that \(\color{red}{x_1\text{ is less than }x}\). \((3x_1)^2 = 3y^2\)
good so far ?
Yes. I was able to get steps 1 and 2 on my own, though I wasn't sure I was doing them correctly. After that is where it gets messy for me.
The logic in next steps is really beautiful
Again, this is proof by fermat's infinite descent. Has nothing to do with your textbook proof by contradiction
Well, I don't know what that means, but hopefully I'll be able to follow it.
Step3 : \((3x_1)^2 = 3y^2 \\ \implies 3{x_1}^2=y^2\) This means \(y^2\) is divisible by \(3\). It follows that \(y\) is also divisible by \(3\). Say, \(y = 3y_1\). Notice that \(\color{red}{y_1\text{ is less than }y}\). \(3{x_1}^2 = (3y_1)^2\)
I'm sure you will get it easily :)
see if the first 3 steps make sense
That makes sense!
What do you observe from first 3 steps
\(x_1\lt x\) and \(y_1\lt y\) yes ?
Yes.
That is true.
Good. Lets do two more steps before concluding
Step4 : \(3{x_1}^2 = (3y_1)^2 \implies {x_1}^2 = 3y_1^2\) This means \({x_1}^2\) is divisible by \(3\). It follows that \(x_1\) is also divisible by \(3\). Say, \(x_1 = 3x_2\). Notice that \(\color{red}{x_2\text{ is less than }x_1}\). \((3{x_2})^2 = 3{y_1}^2\)
Notice that \(x_2\lt x_1\lt x\)
Continuing the above steps, we get an infinite "decreasing" sequence of \(x_i\)'s and \(y_i\)'s
\[\ldots x_4\lt x_3\lt x_2\lt x_1\lt x\] and \[\ldots y_4\lt y_3\lt y_2\lt y_1\lt y\]
We're almost done. Still with me ? :)
Sort of haha.
It seems to make sense. Just kind of a weird.
thing to do.
We're done actually. We just need to conclude
Before concluding, let me ask you a simple question.
what is your favorite large positive integer ?
Sorry, I was going back and re-reading through those steps.
5
that works, but pick something that is really large..
55555
Okay I'm confused on step 3 actually.
At the start of step3, I have just cancelled 3 both sides of the equation
How did you do that on the left side?
Never mind. I figured it out haha.
Nice :)
Now take your favorite integer : 55555
So you would continue doing that same pattern forever, but how would that prove it?
Start with 55555, can you construct a "decreasing" sequence of positive integers ?
Or rather how would that prove it's true.
I'm explaining you the exact same thing... :)
For example : ...., 3 < 100 < 4956 < 55555
Is that sequence really infinite ?
Well no. Because eventually you would hit zero.
BINGO!
Starting with some finite positive integer, you can NEVER construct an "infinite" decreasing sequence of positive integers.
However we have got two "infinite" decreasing sequence of positive integers earlier : \[\ldots x_4\lt x_3\lt x_2\lt x_1\lt x\] and \[\ldots y_4\lt y_3\lt y_2\lt y_1\lt y\]
Since \(x\) and \(y\) are finite positive integers, above sequences cannot be infinite, yes ?
WOAH.
Thats it! You have learned fermat's infinite descent !
We have arrived at a contradiction. Therefore we conclude that our initial assumption, \(a\) is rational, is wrong.
That ends the proof
So that could be used on any similar problem involving a square right?
Absolutely! fermat's infinte descent hinges on this fact : The set of positive integers has a lower bound : 1. We cannot construct an "infinite" sequence of decreasing positive integers.
But hold on, if you had say a^2 = 9 \[x^2 = 9y^2\] \[ x = 9x_{1}\] \[(9x_{1})^2 = 9y^2\] Then you could continue on for infinity right? And we know the sqrt(9) is 3.
You made a mistake. \(x^2\) is divisible by \(9\) need not imply that \(x\) is divisible by \(9\).
really good question though!
For example : \(3^2\) is divisible by \(9\). But \(3\) is not divisible by \(9\).
Your statement is true for primes though: If \(x^2\) is divisible by \(a\) and \(a\) is prime, then \(x\) is divisble by \(a\).
So you don't get an infinite sequence : \(x^2 = 9y^2\) we can only conclude that \(x=3x_1\) from above equation.
But why is that?
what do you mean ?
Ohhhh.
I see the error.
Feel like doing another proof using fermat's infinite descent ?
I'd love to go through another one.
let me find a neat problem..
Here it is : prove \(\large \sqrt[3]{2}\) is irrational
I have another question though. The method given in the book to find prove a^2 = 2 involved showing that a/b was an even number over an even number when you tried to put it in the lowest form.
And I was just wondering if you could use that kind of proof for an odd number. Because I was getting lost trying. I really like the Fermat's Infinite Descent though.
That link has the proof that your textbook is talking about
Yes. So that won't work for anything except for an even number?
It works for every irrational number
Including the one we did earlier?
Yes, lets do a quick proof using simple contradiction for \(\sqrt{3}\)
So \[a^3 = 2\] \[(\frac{ m }{ n })^3 = 2\]
\[m^3 = 2n^3\]
are you trying fermat's infinite descent ?
Oh I was going to. I guess you could use either?
Sorry if that's a dumb question. I'm kind of new to anything involving proofs.
You could use either. Infinite descent is more powerful. Ppl don't use infinite descent for simple irrationalit proofs like these...
I have used infinite descent here just for some practice haha
Are you facing any problem proving the irrationality of \(\sqrt{3}\) using ur textbook method ?
Yes. Hahaha.
Though I feel like your method looks a bit more impressive haha. So \[a^2 = 3\] \[a = \frac{ m }{ n }\] \[m^2 = 3n^2\]
Thus, m^2 is odd?
Thus, m^2 is divisible by 3
That means m is also divisible by 3, let m = 3k
okay
plug that in the equation and get : (3k)^2 = 3n^2 3k^2 = n^2 This means n is also divisible by 3
So we see that both m and n are divisible by 3
But haven't you assumed in the start that m and n have no common factors ?
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