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Mathematics 20 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Beta gamma functions.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\rm Prove~that~\\ \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{ \log(i+ax^2) }{x^2 }dx=\pi~\cdot~\sqrt a\]

OpenStudy (kainui):

What's the definition of the beta function that you're used to? There are like 3 ways you can sorta juggle this thing around, and I think usually it comes down to making some substitution to make it in terms of the other.

OpenStudy (kainui):

Here I'll just throw them out here since I could use the practice anyways: \[\beta(m,n) = \int_0^1 x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1} dx \]\[= \int_0^\infty \frac{y^{n-1}}{(1+y)^{m+n}} dy \]\[ =2 \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \sin^{2m-1} \theta \cos^{2n-1} \theta d \theta \]\[= \frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)}\] Since the thing you're wanting to prove has \(\infty\) in the upper bound on the left and \(\pi\) in it on the right I'd probably lean towards trying to move it from that second version to the one with sine or the gamma functions.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well i believe that we can also use DUIS

OpenStudy (kainui):

Awesome I think we should do that first since that's pretty simple to do.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yup!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so dI/da

OpenStudy (kainui):

Yeah that simplifies it a lot. Is i a variable or square root of negative 1?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i believe complex though m not sure hehehe

OpenStudy (kainui):

Haha alright. I've finished DUIS and it looks like it's about a step or two away from being solved.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

heheh but im not able to solve after i get : 1/(i+ax^2)

OpenStudy (kainui):

What I believe is we can make this: \[\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{i+ax^2}\] look like this: \[\int_0^\infty \frac{y^{n-1}}{(1+y)^{m+n}} dy\] in order to do that, my guess is we can turn that i in the denominator into a 1 like this: \[\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{i+ax^2}=\frac{-i}{-i} \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{i+ax^2} = -i\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1-iax^2}\] Then try substitution \(-iax^2 = y\) I guess and see what happens

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well m not familiar with that second form though but yea i'll try please wait

OpenStudy (kainui):

There might be a way around it then, I am just sorta making stuff up as I go here we might not be going towards the answer right now, I'm just tryingt stuff

OpenStudy (anonymous):

this is what i got so far : \[\frac{ -i }{ 2 \sqrt{a} } \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}y^{1-/2}\cdot~(1+y)^{-1}dy\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@Kainui @ganeshie8

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@terenzreignz @texaschic101

hartnn (hartnn):

let me verify what u got: \(ax^2 = iy\) \(2ax dx = i dy\) \(dx = \dfrac{idy}{2a}\times \dfrac{1}{\sqrt {(iy/a) } } =\dfrac{ \sqrt {(i/a)}}{2\sqrt y}dy\) I am getting a different constant.... \(\Large =\dfrac{ -i\sqrt i }{ 2 \sqrt{a} } \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}y^{-\frac{1}{2}}\cdot~(1+y)^{-1}dy\) Anyways, using \(\Large \int \limits_0^\infty \frac{y^{n-1}}{(1+y)^{m+n}} dy = \frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)}\) n = 1/2 , m = 1/2 \( \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}y^{-\frac{1}{2}}\cdot~(1+y)^{-1}dy =\frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}{\Gamma(1)} = \dfrac{\sqrt \pi \times \sqrt \pi }{1} = \pi \) Iff we ignore \(-i \sqrt i\) [somewhere there is an error...], \(f'(a)= \dfrac{\pi }{2\sqrt a} \\ \implies f(a) = \int \dfrac{\pi }{2\sqrt a} da= \pi \sqrt a \)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks

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