Could someone help me with that question,please?

Question

anonymous · Answer

attachment

anonymous · Answer

@IrishBoy123

irishboy123 · Answer

i'd say neither because can be normalised as neither of the square integrals converges https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=int_%7B0%7D%5E%7Binfty%7D+(e%5Ex+sin(x))%5E2+dx https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=int_%7B-infty%7D%5E%7Binfty%7D+(e%5E(-x)+cos(x))%5E2+dx ie the normalisation constant is zero... @Astrophysics knows this stuff well.

astrophysics · Answer

The wave function is the probability density, essentially you have $$\int\limits |\Psi|^2dx,~~~|\Psi| = \Psi ^* \Psi$$ so notice it needs to be square integrable. But, there are other conditions, to put it in the simplest sense, it must be continuous, their derivative needs to exist and be continuous as well and it must be finite. 

So if it is finite everywhere, you can see it is normalizable, you don't want it going to infinity. So as @IrishBoy123 listed, it will diverge otherwise, hence not normalizable :-). Hope that helps.

anonymous · Answer

thank you very much for all of you