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help: please correct my proof
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I don't know but I think you shouldn't assume that f is differentiable. I suspect this can be solved using intermediate value theorem only.
Let \(g(z)=cf(x)+kf(y)-(c+k)f(z)\). \(g(z)\) is continuous because it is a combination of the continuous function \(f(x)\). Suppose \(f(x)<f(y)\). Then \(g(y)<0\) and \(g(x)>0\). By Intermediate Value Theorem, there exist a \(\zeta\) such that \(x<\zeta<y\) and \(g(\zeta)=0\). \(g(\zeta)=0\implies f(\zeta)=\dfrac{cf(x)+kf(y)}{c+k}\). The case of \(f(y)<f(x)\) and \(f(x)=f(y)\) is left as an exercise for the reader. The case of \(f(x)=f(y)\) is slightly harder, and that will be my belated gift for you on April Fool's day.
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