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OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

Spain conquered the Mayans in Mexico and Inca in Peru for their wealth?

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

@AloneS

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

@Ravenclaw20

OpenStudy (qwertty123):

I am a Mayan! The sad truth is yes they did.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that is not a proper question, so IDK. you should of said "Did Spain conquer the Mayans in Mexico and Inca in Peru for their wealth?"

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

@Ravenclaw20 yes i did

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

mean to say that

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

@party_girl @rebeccaxhawaii

OpenStudy (anonymous):

:)

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

so r u able to help @Ravenclaw20 ?

OpenStudy (codyhelton75):

@wil476003

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, they did.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

for their wealth and land since together the Myan's and Inca's had a lot of both

OpenStudy (wwhitlock):

The Maya didn't have much wealth by the time the Spanish arrived. The great civilization had largely disappeared. There were Mayan people, as there are now. They mostly lived in small villages by that time. There was one major battle which the Spanish won. But that was mostly to establish Spanish rule over southern Mexico and the Yucatan. The Aztec had a great civilization in Mexico at the time of the Spanish invasion. They had the riches and such that drew so much attention from the Conquistadors. Spain but a lot more effort into getting their gold and stuff, because they had more. The Inca, too had a civilization worth conquering. But the Maya, just sorta got caught up in the regime change. Their salad days were behind them.

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