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Mathematics 21 Online
ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

http://prntscr.com/co0te4 help me u intelligent beings

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

@Zarkon @Jamierox4ev3r

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

Oh lordy, proofs :}

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

yes ma'am we all love them

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

:(

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

i require assistance

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

well we can start by eliminating some options. @Nnesha btw, it's good to see you again!

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

i would say B

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

since only one angle is clearly shown, and at least 1 side is shown

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

and the one that connects them is technically a congruent side

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

wait what does H L theorem do

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

the H-L theorem is the hypotenuse leg theorem. It states that any two triangles that have a congruent hypotenuse and a corresponding, congruent leg are congruent triangles

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

so it should be H-L theorem for this one

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

It seems like that to me, but I'm a bit iffy since the hypotenuses aren't marked as being equivalent

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

only the legs are

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

then what do u think it is

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

http://prntscr.com/co0vbv

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

i picked H-L

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

to be honest, I don't feel dead set on any of these. However H-L seems like the best answer, since we know that the angles and legs are equivalent, so the hypotenuse must be as well. Make sense?

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

yeah

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

sas means 2 sides and an angle is equivalent, which is basically the same thing

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

i picked HL, lets do next one

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

yep. That's why I wasn't certain, the definitions are too similar. And alright, I'm looking at it already

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

So it looks like we'll need another angle here, since once that's done, the sides are pretty much accounted for.

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

so that leaves you with either the first or third choice. Which one do you think it is?

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

C??

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

@Jamierox4ev3r

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

yup, nice

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

http://prntscr.com/co0xb3

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

@Jamierox4ev3r

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

so if we have perpendicularity, we know that there is one pair of sides is equivalent

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

i wanted to say not enough info

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

since we only have 1 angle and 1 side

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

then, we are given that one angle is equivalent, and perpendicularity tells us that they are both 90 degree angles. So I'm thinking asa

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

yes but the side is already included in that angle

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

@AravindG check those answers xD

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

yes, but since we know that the line is perpendicular and those angles are equivalent, the sides must be equivalent too.

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

Yet another intricate proof rule

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

ok, im picking ASA

ILovePuppiesLol (ilovepuppieslol):

if u are wrong, u are dead

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

lol well that's how we did proofs at my school... I'm pretty sure it's right, and if it's not, your teacher can fite me

OpenStudy (aravindg):

Too long so lazy to read haha

HanAkoSolo (jamierox4ev3r):

^ LOL thx, very helpul x'D

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