Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 46 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

If f''(a)=0 then x=a is a point of inflexion (true or false)?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

not necessarily. it means the curvature changes. for instance if you have a positive coefficient parabola, the curvature is upwards. at the minimum, the first derivative is = 0 but the curvature never changes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

k thanks

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!