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find the exact value of the experssion cos^-1zero
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pi/2
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how did u get that
cos(pi/2)=0 so the inverse means that...its right
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you are looking for a number (angle) between 0 and \[\pi\] whose cosine is 0. that is the one
trig cheat sheet here will find it for you http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/cheat_table.aspx
thank u
gotta be last one because of the absolute value signs!
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how sure r u
was i wrong ?
no just asking
it does say absolute value right? absolute value cannot be negative. must be above the x axis yes?
@ brackett i was answering her second post, the graph above
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see tha range for cos inverse function is [0,pi] , so in this interval cos becomes 0 only at pi/2.
thank u
u still there
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