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Prove that limx→0sinxx=1
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do you have to use the "squeeze" theorem?
I assume they mean \[\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1\]
if you can use derivatives, this is the same as asking what is the cosine of zero, which is 1. if you can use l'hopital you get exactly the same thing in exactly the same step
though L'Hospitals rule is 'cheating'
other wise every text has this as example 1 of the "squeeze theorem' so you can read it there for sure cheating right!
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