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Using the rule of division properties of exponents ex: 50p^3/20p^2 do you add 50 & 20 and subract the exponents?
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No, I don't think so. The "Base" has to be equal; its either gotta both be 50p or 20p, not either. If they were the same, yes, you would subtract the exponent. Not totally sure though.
Thanks ! I think you're right!
Whoa. I'm Right?
Then my job here is done. BATMAN AWAY
I think so It makes sense (:
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I "learnt" that last year. I may be fuzzy on the logic behind the question. BATMAN AWAY. Again.
lol. thanks though .
Your welcome. BATMAN AWAY
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