Question

Prove that as \( n \rightarrow \infty \), \( (\ln n)^m/n \rightarrow 0 \)

Answer 1

lhopital etc etc

Answer 2

The questions wants it for any fixed integer \( m \geq 0 \0

Answer 3

\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} {m! \over n}\]

won't it turn into something like that? Then using that, you can see it's 0

Answer 4

That will result from applying lhopitals rule a lot m times

Answer 5

But I'm not sure, I'm guessing tbh

Answer 6

@slaaibak: Your work looks right to me since m is integer greater than or equal to zero.

Answer 7

@agd: Why did you give me a medal?