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If f(x) = ax^2 + bx + a is divided by (x – b) a , b ≠0 , remainder is ‘a’ , then a is
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(A) b^2 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) a + b
I get -1... wanna see how?
I'm not positive, but I don;t think I made any mistakes...
Yes the answer is right, it matches the answer key.
but I assume you would like to know how to do the problem, right?
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Yes
here's I I did it (I'm going to have to use synthetic division, so bear with me because I have to draw it)...just wait
Ok, no problem. Take your own time.
|dw:1324651879110:dw|now we are told that the remainder \[b^2(a+1)+a=a\to b^2(a+1)=0\]and since we are also told\[a,b\neq0\]that can only mean\[a+1=0\to a=-1\]
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