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find the inverse of f(x)=(x+1)/(x-1)
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(x+1)/(x-1)
the same?....why?....wolfram suggests that too but it doesnt make sense :S
well check it out.....try substituting some value......
so if the inverse is the same...there is no inverse...the function is one to one or not?
lol no...it is bijective......the inverse is same.....jus it is a funny case :P
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bijective?
um ok it s one one...sry not bijective
so it is one to one but its inverse is the same as the original...thats absurd!
lol no.....dont get so confused.....that's not absurd...no rule that inverse should nt be the same as the function....nd wat do u say about f(x) = x
aha...thank you very much dude!
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not a prob :)
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