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my book says \(x\ln x - x\ln y\) is a homogeneous function...but how??
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if i sub in a \(\lambda \) i get \[\lambda x \ln (\lambda x) - \lambda x \ln (\lambda y)\]
i guess i can factor out into \[\lambda x [\ln (\frac{\lambda x}{\lambda y})]\]
then is it a homo with degree 1?
Yeah. You just answered your own question. =))
haha i love those times =))))
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