Question

how do cos npi=(-1^n) *fourier series

Answer 1

\[cos n pi =(-1^{n})\]

Answer 2

@apoorvk can u help me with this?

Answer 3

I am sorry, @mohdrahmat I haven't studied Fourier series, but this statement is correct.

Cosine is '-1' at odd integral multiples of pi, and '1' at even integral multiples of pi.

Now take some even and odd values of 'n', and try to test the situation above. You will realise what's happening ;)

See, if this helps.

Answer 4

its okay @apoorvk i'll try to analyse it.. :D

Answer 5

Sure, and do ping me if you need more help :)

Answer 6

ok. tqvm :D