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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hi guys..have a rather fundamental question. Assuming f'(x1) > f'(x2) (subscript 1 and 2 i mean) say for all x > 0, does that mean that f(x1) > f(x2) for all x > 0 too? Thanks :)

OpenStudy (unklerhaukus):

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