Question

I am trying to prove what wikipedia proved in here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torque#Proof_of_the_equivalence_of_definitions but for many particles not just one. In that case the angular momentum is the integral over all the angular momenta of each particle. However, the torque follows the same formula still.

Answer 1

When you take calculus three you will go over the cross product. Then you will be able to prove it.

Answer 2

Hey Coda, thanks for the answer. But if you use the fact that total angular momentum is angular momentum on the center of mass plus the angular momentum with respect to the center of mass, you get that Torque=r_cm x F_cm +integral of Torque_with-respect-to-cm dV

Answer 3

Is that right?