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Mathematics 21 Online
OpenStudy (gio333):

If the domain of each of the functions f(x) and g(x) is all real numbers, will the domain of (f/g)(x) also be all real numbers? Why or why not?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

nope

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you may not divide by 0, so the domain will be all real numbers EXCEPT those for which \(g(x)=0\)

OpenStudy (gio333):

okay thanks

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