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MIT 18.01 Single Variable Calculus (OCW) 9 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

If we have two functions F(x) and f(x) such that derivative of F(x) = f(x) but i am confused with the indefinite integral sign.?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

|dw:1344980298301:dw| How can we prove that this notation take us way back to the function f(x) which is derivative of the given function F(x)? I understand the anti derivatives but am confused with the notation used?

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