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MIT 18.01 Single Variable Calculus (OCW)
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
If we have two functions F(x) and f(x) such that derivative of F(x) = f(x) but i am confused with the indefinite integral sign.?
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
|dw:1344980298301:dw| How can we prove that this notation take us way back to the function f(x) which is derivative of the given function F(x)? I understand the anti derivatives but am confused with the notation used?
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