I know a varying magnetic flux linked with a coil induces current in it.. That is faradey's law! But then why does varying magnetic flux induce current? I searched a lot but i am still unable to get a 'satisfactory' answer!
may be that could help you..!!
Thanks buddy!
u r welcome!! u helped me lot and i know i could be really annoying in that discussion..:P
No, in fact getting to know how others view the same thing is always helpful.. Your views sometimes can be different and correct too.. And that is how i love to learn physics.. through discussions!
Look up lorentz's law- although of course that doesn't really describe WHY, it's a useful generalisation.
Lorentz's law doesn't describe it that effectively.. It might describe the cases when the loop of wire is being deformed and the cases of 'motional emf'. But then there is a current even when the wire is 'not moving' and only magnitude of magnetic field is changed by some means!
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