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Can anyone prove this? If x>y and z>0, then xz>yz
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Basically, since z > 0 and occurs on both sides, you can treat z as a constant (since z is on both sides and are the same value) if you were to divide both sides by z it would just leave the equation x(1)>y(1) since the ratio is just states to the original x > y which is always true. Therefore, xz>yz. Does that help?
YES! Like seriously, you're my new best friend. Do you do proofs often?
I don't do them often, but I can relate general math in a way that makes sense.
Well thank you again for your help.
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