Question

proof that the equation (1 / x) - (sin (x) / cos / (x)) has no solutions in (0, π), and it has 1 solution in the interval (π, 2π). The proof may not be graphic, but mathematically done and it is announce by me that the function is strictly increasing on each interval (nπ, (n +1) π).

Answer 1

sorry wrote wrong (1/x)-(sin(x)/cos(x))=0

Answer 2

the equation becomes tanx =1/x

Answer 3

don't you mean tan(x)=x?

Answer 4

, i think if we graphically see it , it has a solution in 0,pi