In determining questions in the United States in Congress assembled, each State shall have one vote."—Articles of Confederation Could a person correctly argue that this quote violates the principle of popular sovereignty?
A person could not correctly argue that it is a violation because the quote shows states did have a voice in government. One could not correctly argue that it is a violation because the quote shows that each state has equal power in Congress. A person could correctly argue that is a violation because the states would have less power than the leaders in Congress. One could correctly argue that it is a violation because the states have different populations and should have proportional votes.
No. The states are themselves models of popular sovereignty. Each of them has a republican form of government. You can't derive nonrepublican government from republican building blocks. The people get to choose the government of the states, and the states then determined the actions of the national government. There's nothing in that process that violates propular sovereignty.
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