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Mathematics 10 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Use the max-min inequality to show that if f is integrable then f(x) ≤ 0 on [a,b] -> ∫ (from a to be) f(x) d(X) ≥ 0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

seems unlikely

OpenStudy (anonymous):

of \(f(x)\) is never positive, then neither is the integral

OpenStudy (anonymous):

are you saying there is no way of showing it? or the question does not have a definite answer?

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