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Mathematics 4 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Is the inverse of a function, always a function?

OpenStudy (ash2326):

Yes, if a function is invertible- it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function

OpenStudy (anonymous):

iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function

OpenStudy (ash2326):

But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or\( \sin^{−1}x \) is defined with constraints on domain and range

OpenStudy (mertsj):

No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.

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